Apr 242017
One who buys an item that can be sold for 2 different uses (fruits for planting and fruits for eating/an ox for slaughtering or an ox for plowing) and doesn’t specify for which purpose he/she is buying it for – can one claim that it is not usable for the purposes it was purchased for and get one’s money back or not? Does it depend on if the majority of people purchase this item for one particular use? Or do we say this is a classic case of “the burden of proof relies on the one trying to get the money out of the other” in which case, the buyer is stuck with the item unless he/she can provide proof.
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