A woman can be betrothed if she asks the husband to give the money to someone else and doesn’t receive the money herself or if the husband himself doesn’t put up the money. Rava explains where we derive this from. Can she be the one to give the money? If so, why does that work? Can one betroth a woman by saying half of her is betrothed to him? Or can he say half of him is betrothed to her? Various questions are brought (and not answered) regarding combining 2 marriages with one peruta or 2 items (a woman and a cow, a woman and land). If using something that has monetary value and not money itself, does one need to evaluate the item to know its precise value?
Kiddushin has to be effected with a declaration like “behold you are bethrothed to me.” What other wording can effect kiddushin? What about by divorce? Are there situations where no declaration is necessary? One cannot bethroth a woman with money in a case that she borrowed money and he says that the money she owes will effect the kiddushin. What other cases are similar that would work but aren’t recommended? Can a sale, a marriage, pidyon haben, truma be effected by giving the money/gift to the other conditioned upon it being returned?
From where do we derive that kiddushin can be effected through sexual relations and through a document? How does Rav Huna learn that chuppa can also effect kiddushin? Kiddushin with money requires that a declaration be made. what if the woman makes that declaration? Does that work?
From where do we derive that a man can marry a woman through money and that if she is a minor or a na’ara the money goes to her father? This discussion continues from yesterday’s daf as conclusive proofs are now brought and examined in light of other sources.
Why did the mishna use the term derachim instead of devarim? The gemara compares different mishnayot that employ the same term in order to resolve the question. Why does the mishna give numbers and not just cite the options. From where does the gemara learn that kiddushin can be done with money and that if the girls is a minor or a na’ara, that the money goes to the father?
A woman is acquired in 3 ways and gets herself out of it in 2 ways. What kind of acquiring is going on here? Is it like buying an object? Or is there something more than that? Why is the subject the woman is acquired and not the man acquires? Why is the root kinyan (acquiring) used and not the root kodesh (kiddushin) used as appears in the second chapter where it says the man is mekadesh. Why does the word 3 appear in feminine where is a similarly structured mishna is appears in masculine form.
How seriously do we take rumors that say a woman is divorced or married? If we do take it seriously, are there levels of rumors – ones that are more believable than others? And what are the ramifications of they are acceptable? What if the rumors are proven false, does that undo everything or not? Why?
Can a witness sign on the side of a document? Can you sign using a family name that people no longer use? Jewish courts can force a husband to give a get as long as in the end he agrees to it but a get forced by a non Jewish court is not valid, unless there are also Jews involved and they tell him to do what the Jews are telling you to do. Whether or not this get (by non Jews) is invalid by the rabbis or by Torah law is a debate in the gemara. Do the courts outside of Israel (where there is no semicha) have jurisdiction to force husbands to give a get? In what ways are they limited in their power and in what ways are they not limited? And why? Under the surface of today’s daf there are a number of issues relating to authority of leaders and the responsibility placed in their hands.
Can a number of people join together and write one get for all their wives. If so, how must it be done so it fulfills all the halachic obligations? If 2 separate divorce documents are written side by side and witnesses are signed on the bottom, for which get are they valid? What if some witnesses sign in Hebrew and some in Greek? There are varying interpretations among the rishonim as to what it means to “sign in Greek.”
The gemara distinguishes between various cases where the get is valid from the Torah but invalid on a rabbinic level – is the get valid – if so, can she get remarried based on it? If not, and she does anyway, is the new child from a second marriage a mamzer, and does the woman need to get divorced from her new husband? Many rabbis opinions are brought who show that we hold like rabbi Elazar that the witnesses who view the giving of the get are the critical ones. However there is disagreement about whether we hold like Rabbi Elazar in monetary documents.